CBSE Term 1 Class 12 Geography, Board Exam 2021-22: Question Paper and Answer Key

CBSE 2021-22, Class 12 Geography board today's exam question paper. Check the answers key of the class 12 Geography (Term 1) paper.

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Class 12th CBSE Term 1, Geography Board Exam Question Paper and Answers Key 2021-22

  • SUBJECT- Geography
  • Term- I
  • Time allowed- 90 minutes
  • Maximum Marks- 40

Q1. Which one of the following physical factors is responsible for the uneven distribution of population in India?

(a) Availability of water

(b) Agricultural development

(c) Transport network

(d) Urbanization

The correct answer is: Availability of water

Q2. Which of the following group of countries, Indians mainly migrated in the third wave of migration?

(a) United States of America, Canada, United Kingdom

(b) Japan, China, Vietnam

(c) Thailand, Malaysia, Singapore

(d) Mauritius, Fiji, Sri Lanka

The correct answer is: United States of America, Canada, United Kingdom

Q3. Which of the following sectors has the highest percentage of working population in India?

(a) Commerce

(b) Agriculture

(c) Manufacturing

(d) Trade

The correct answer is: Agriculture

Q4. Which one of the following is a social consequence of migration?

(a) Growth of unplanned settlements

(b) Intermixing of cultures

(c) Increase in urban population

(d) Depletion of groundwater

The correct answer is: Depletion of groundwater

Q5. In rural settlements, people mainly depend on which of the following sectors for their livelihood?

(a) Primary

(b) Secondary

(c) Tertiary

(d) Quaternary

The correct answer is: Primary

Q6. Choose the characteristics of ‘clustered settlements’?

(a) Mainly found in Himachal Pradesh

(b) Mainly found in lower valleys of the Himalayas.

(c) Mainly found in Rajasthan

(d) Mainly found in fertile alluvial plains.

The correct answer is: Mainly found in fertile alluvial plains.

Q7. Which of the following is an example of a modern town?

(a) Surat

(b) Jaipur

(c) Lucknow

(d) Agra

The correct answer is: Surat

Q8. Which one of the following is developed as the satellite town of Delhi?

(a) Panipat

(b) Rohtak

(c) Mathura

(d) Meerut

The correct answer is: Rohtak

Q9. Which one of the following river comes under East Flowing Rivers of Group – 2?

(a) Mahanadi

(b) Godavari

(c) Kaveri

(d) Swarnarekha

The correct answer is: Godavari

Q10. Which of the following States has the highest percentage of irrigated area through wells and tube wells?

(a) Punjab

(b) Haryana

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Madhya Pradesh

The correct answer is: Punjab

Q11. ‘Haryali Watershed Development Project’ is run by which of the following?

(a) Non-Governmental Organization

(b) Local Self Government

(c) State Government

(d) Central Government

The correct answer is: Central Government

Q12. In which one of the following States, Kund or Tanka is mainly used for rain water harvesting?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Maharashtra

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Gujarat

The correct answer is: Rajasthan

Q13. Which of the following is often been described as transport network?

(a) Repiratory system

(b) Arteries of circulation

(c) Blood circulation

(d) Heart circulation

The correct answer is: Arteries of circulation

Q14. Who among the following defined Human Geography as – ‘conception resulting from a more synthetic knowledge of the physical laws governing our earth and of the relations between the living beings which inhabit it’?

(a) Ratzel

(b) Ellen C Semple

(c) Paul Vidal de la Blache

(d) Griffith Taylor

The correct answer is: Paul Vidal de la Blache

Q15. Which of the following school of thought is related to the different aspects of social well-being of the people?

(a) Behaviouralistic

(b) Humanistic

(c) Radical

(d) Utopian

The correct answer is: Humanistic

Q16. Who among the following has said- ‘Asia has many places where people are few place where people are very many’?

(a) Prof. Amartya Sen

(b) Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq

(c) George B Cressey

(d) Thomas Malthus

The correct answer is: George B Cressey

Q17. Choose the ‘push factor’ of migration from the followings:

(a) Socio-economic backwardness

(b) Pleasant climate

(c) Security of life and property

(d) Peace and stability

The correct answer is: Socio-economic backwardness

Q18. Which one of the following has played an important role to decline death rate rapidly throughout the world?

(a) Big Hospitals chain

(b) Revolution in surgery

(c) Medical help through insurance scheme

(d) Inoculation against epidemics communicable

The correct answer is: Inoculation against epidemics communicable

Q19. Which is the main objective of development according to Nobel Laureate Amartya Sen?

(a) Increase in brotherhood

(b) Increase in freedom

(c) Increase in democracy

(d) Increase in equality

The correct answer is: Increase in freedom

Q20. Which of the following organizations proposed the basic needs approach?

(a) International Labour Organization

(b) United Nations Development Programme

(c) World Health Organization

(d) International Monetary Fund

The correct answer is: International Labour Organization

Q21. Which of the following countries comes under medium level of human development?

(a) Norway

(b) Canada

(c) India

(d) Singapore

The correct answer is: India

Q22. Which of the following activities comes under primary activities?

(a) Pastoralism

(b) Weaving Basket

(c) Milk Vending

(d) Tailoring

The correct answer is: Pastoralism

Q23. Choose the physical factor affecting mining:

(a) Demand of Mineral

(b) Technological Knowledge

(c) Infrastructural Development

(d) Size of occurrence of the mineral deposits

The correct answer is: Size of occurrence of the mineral deposits

Q24. Choose the feature of open cast mining from the following:

(a) Cheapest way of mining

(b) It requires lifts frills

(c) It requires a ventilation system

(d) It has high labour cost

The correct answer is: Cheapest way of mining

Q25. Choose the largest country in terms of area of South America continent

(a) Argentina

(b) Brazil

(c) Chile

(d) Panama

The correct answer is: Brazil

Q26. Which one of the following is an important area of Nomadic herding

(a) Madagascar

(b) Southern Africa

(c) South Eastern Africa

(d) Central Africa

The correct answer is: Madagascar

Q27. Choose the sea port of Europe

(a) Vancouver

(b) Durban

(c) North Cape

(d) Belem

The correct answer is: North Cape

Q28. Choose a mega city of the world

(a) Colombo

(b) Perth

(c) Islamabad

(d) Mumbai

The correct answer is: Mumbai

Q29. Choose the major airport of New Zealand

(a) Perth

(b) Johannesburg

(c) Santiago

(d) Auckland

The correct answer is: Auckland

Q30. Arrange the following approaches in ascending order to the basis of time and choose the correct option

I. Areal differentiation

II. Spatial Organisation

III. Exploration and description

IV. Regional analysis

(a) I, II, III, Iv

(b) IV, III, II, I

(c) III, IV, I, II

(d) II, I, IV, III

The correct answer is: III, IV, I, II

Q31. Match the column 1 with column 2 and choose the correct option

Column 1 (subfields of human geography)

A. behavioural geography

B. cultural geography

C. gender geography

D. medical geography

Column 2 (interface with sister discipline of Social Science)

i. sociology

ii. epidemiology

iii. psychology

iv. anthropology

(a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(b) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

(c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

(d) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

The correct answer is: A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

Q32. Which one of the following is a feature of plantation agriculture?

(a) it is a single crop specialisation

(b) it is a multi crop specialisation

(c) it is an example of subsistence agriculture

(d) cultivation is done with the help of very primitive tools

The correct answer is: it is a single crop specialisation

Q33. Which one of the following countries has officially proclaimed the gross national happiness of the countries problems?

(a) Nepal

(b) Bhutan

(c) Vietnam

(d) Japan

The correct answer is: Bhutan

Q.34 Which of the following formula is correct to know the actual growth of population?

(a) Birth + death – in migration + out-migration

(b) Birth + death +in migration – out-migration

(c) Birth – death – in migration + out-migration

(d) Birth – Death + in migration – out-migration

The correct answer is: Birth – death – in migration + out-migration

Q35. Which one of the following continent population growth rate?

(a) Asia

(b) Europe

(c) Africa

(d) South America

The correct answer is: Africa

Q36. Which one of the following is related to Kolkhor?

(a) Cooperative farming

(b) Collective farming

(c) Truck farming

(d) Garden farming

The correct answer is: Truck farming

Q37. Choose the incorrect statement regarding commercial livestock rearing

(a) commercial livestock rearing is associated with western culture

(b) parcels are fenced to regulate the grazing

(c) move from one place to another depending on the amount of pastures

(d) when the grass of one parcel is grazed animals are moved to another parcel

The correct answer is: parcels are fenced to regulate the grazing

Q38. Which the following pair is correct?

(a) Mediterranean picture agriculture – production of citrus fruits

(b) mixed farming – paddy dominated cultivation

(c) primitive subsistence agriculture – mechanized grain farming

(d) intensive subsistence agriculture – jhuming farming

The correct answer is: primitive subsistence agriculture – mechanized grain farming

Q39. Study the following statements I and II and choose the correct option.

I. the decades 1951-1981 42 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India,

II. During the period of rapid fall in the mortality rate and high fertility rate in the country.

(a) Only I is correct

(b) Only II is correct

(c) I and II both are wrong

(d) I and II both are correct, II correctly explain the I

The correct answer is: I and II both are correct, II correctly explain the I

Q40. Which one of the following countries has the highest immigration by the last residence in India?

(a) Sri Lanka

(b) Bangladesh

(c) Pakistan

(d) Nepal

The correct answer is: Bangladesh

Q41. Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option:

Column I

i. medieval town

ii. mining town

iii. Industrial Town

iv. ancient town

Column II

A. Modinagar

B. Varanasi

C. Jaipur

D. Raniganj

-i ii iii iv

(a) A B C D

(b) B A D C

(c) C D A B

(d) D C B A

The correct answer is: C D A B

Q42. In India open females move out from their parental houses after marriage. which one of the following States, the case is Reverse?

(a) Kerala

(b) Karnataka

(c) Meghalaya

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

The correct answer is: Meghalaya

Q43. The main reason of intra migration in India is:

(a) Employment

(b) Education

(c) Health

(d) Pleasant Climate

The correct answer is: Employment

Q44. In which of the size classes has the highest number of towns in India?

(a) I

(b) II

(c) III

(d) IV

The correct answer is: IV

Q45. Choose the correct pair of the following:

(a) Garrison town – Ambala

(b) Tourist town – Saharanpur

(c) Mining town – Kolkata

(d) Administration town – Singrauli

The correct answer is: Garrison town – Ambala

Q46. Which one of the following is the most important objective of Smart City Mission?

(a) To develop road network

(b) To expand the city

(c) To provide a sustainable environment

(d) To provide employment opportunities

The correct answer is: To provide a sustainable environment

Q47. In which of the Size class of urban centers India has the highest population?

(a) I

(b) II

(c) III

(d) IV

The correct answer is: I

Q48. Which one of the following is the feature of National Water Policy?

(a) Should be least use of water

(b) Should be clean rivers

(c) Should be conserve water in each house

(d) Awareness as a scarce resource should be fostered

The correct answer is: Awareness as a scarce resource should be fostered

Q49. Physical factor responsible for the low density of population in Arunachal Pradesh is:

(a) Hilly State

(b) Lack of industries

(c) lack of transport network

(d) tribal population

The correct answer is: Hilly State

Q50. How much excess is the density of population of Bihar in respect of average density of population of India?

(a) 720

(b) 417

(c) 741

(d) 471

The correct answer is: 720

Q51. Which of the following Union Territories has the highest density of population?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar

(b) Chandigarh

(c) Lakshadweep

(d) Puducherry

The correct answer is: Chandigarh

Q52. Which of the following north-eastern States has the lowest desinty of population?

(a) Nagaland

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Sikkim

(d) Meghalaya

The correct answer is: Arunachal Pradesh

Q53. Which one of the following streams has the highest male migration?

(a) Rural to Rural

(b) Rural to Urban

(c) Urban to Rural

(d) Urban to Urban

The correct answer is: Rural to Urban

Q54. In Which of the following streams has the highest migration of females?

(a) Rural to Urban

(b) Urban to Rural

(c) Rural to Rural

(d) Urban to Urban

The correct answer is: Urban to Urban

Q55. Which stream shows the least migration?

(a) Rural to Rural

(b) Rural to Urban

(c) Urban to Rural

(d) Urban to Urban

The correct answer is: Urban to Rura

Q56. What is the main reason of female migration in India?

(a) Marriage

(b) Employment

(c) Education

(d) Health

The correct answer is: Marriage

Q57. It took 1500 years population to reach 5 million to 500 million. If it is considered as the first stage of demographic transition, which of the following is the main reason for the slow pace of population growth?

(a) high birth rate, low death rate

(b) high birth rate, high death rate

(c) low birth rate, high death rate

(d) low birth rate, low death rate

The correct answer is: high birth rate, high death rate

Q58. In which period the population increased rapidly?

(a) 127-1974

(b) 10,000 B.C- 1650 A.D

(c) 1804-1927

(d) 1650-1804

The correct answer is: 127-1974

Q59. How long did it take for the population to reach 1000 million to 4000 million?

(a) 123 years

(b) 170 years

(c) 277 years

(d) 221 years

The correct answer is: 170 years

Q60. Population explosion is the result of which of the following stages?

(a) First

(b) Second

(c) Third

(d) Fourth

The correct answer is: Second